[B-Greek] Follow up to Mitch's AGAPAW and FILEW
bertdehaan at gosympatico.ca
bertdehaan at gosympatico.ca
Sun Aug 17 12:37:59 EDT 2003
>
> "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu> wrote on> Date: Sun, 17 Aug 2003 06:26:15 -0400
......
> Furthermore, when I spoke of a "growing consensus" regarding synonymous
> usage of AGAPAW and FILEW, I pointedly referred to John 21, where there was
> once a widespread view that the exchange between Peter and Jesus had
> particularly profound dimensions determined by the alternation of these two
> verbs there; the "growing consensus" to which I referred is that the
> alternation in that passage does not have the profound dimensions that were
> assumed and much sermonized about in the last century.
I was among those that felt there was a profound dimension to the alternating of the 2 verbs in John 21.
Not because of the alternating as such but because of the pattern in the alternating.
However, reading this passage again, it struck me for the first time that it says in vers 17 LEGEI AUTWi TO TRITON; SIMWN IWANNOU, FILEIS ME? If this "profound dimension" that I had assumed was there, was intended, it would not have said TO TRITON. For what Jesus was about to say was the first time using the verb FILEW. Likewise, Peter was grieved hOTI EIPEN AUTWi TO TRITON; FILEIS ME? Not as I had assumed (due to inaccurate reading) because Jesus had asked him twice AGAPAiS ME? and then finally FILEIS ME? I realize this may not be very profound but it is worth mentioning.
I can't defend my previous position anymore.
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