[B-Greek] Two statements in John's Gospel

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Tue Aug 19 09:17:56 EDT 2003


At 5:04 AM -0700 8/19/03, Mitch Larramore wrote:
>DIA TOUTO OUK HDUNANTO PISTEUEIN, hOTI PALIN EIPEN
>HSAIAS, TETUFLWKEN AUTWN TOUS OFQALMOUS KAI EPWRWSEN
>AUTWN THN KARDIAN, hINA MH IDWSIN TOIS OFQALMOIS KAI
>NOHSWSIN THi KARDIAi KAI STRAFWSIN, KAI IASOMAI AUTOUS
(corrected)

It would help a little bit to identify the source: John 12;39-40.
>
>Is this passage inconsistant with John's earlier words
>that EIS TA IDIA HLQEN, KAI hOI IDIOI AUTON OU
>PARELABON? On the surface, these seem inconsistant to
>me. One says they did not receive him, one says they
>couldn't. (Offlist responses might be better :O)

The passage in chapter 12 is offering a reason for what the passage in the
prologue states as a fact. That passage of Isaiah (from chapter 6) is
frequently cited in the gospels as an explanation for failure to understand
or believe by audiences addressed by Jesus (e.g. Mk 4:12 and
parallels)--but it is a paradox of sorts in every instance, and in John's
gospel blindness and vision as related to symbolic darkness and light are
paradoxically self-induced and fraught with responsibility for their
consequences. But this is not the forum for general exposition of Johannine
theological paradoxes, as Mitch clearly understands by inviting off-list
responses.
-- 

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/



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