[B-Greek] Two statements in John's Gospel

waldo slusher waldoslusher at yahoo.com
Tue Aug 19 14:45:42 EDT 2003


--- "Carl W. Conrad" <cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu>
wrote:

> >DIA TOUTO OUK HDUNANTO PISTEUEIN, hOTI PALIN EIPEN
> >HSAIAS, TETUFLWKEN AUTWN TOUS OFQALMOUS KAI
> EPWRWSEN
> >AUTWN THN KARDIAN, hINA MH IDWSIN TOIS OFQALMOIS
> KAI
> >NOHSWSIN THi KARDIAi KAI STRAFWSIN, KAI IASOMAI
> AUTOUS
> (corrected)
> 

> 
> The passage in chapter 12 is offering a reason for
> what the passage in the
> prologue states as a fact. That passage of Isaiah
> (from chapter 6) is
> frequently cited in the gospels as an explanation
> for failure to understand
> or believe by audiences addressed by Jesus (e.g. Mk
> 4:12 and
> parallels)--but it is a paradox of sorts in every
> instance, 

I think "paradox" is much too strong here if we limit
ourselves to just these passages that Mitch raises
(even if we limit ourselves to the Gospel according to
John in toto). Neither of these passages expose or
identify all the antecedent causes or events, any
number of which could easily eliminate some "paradox"
if known. Since this list does not allow the
discussion of hermeneutical options (though both Carl
and Mark have in my opinion done so), I think passages
like these Mitch raises cannot be adequately addressed
here if one's goal is to understand THE MEANING of the
passages. 


=====
Waldo Slusher
Calgary, AB

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