[B-Greek] Psalm 39:7 LXX

Ben and Jo Crick ben.crick at argonet.co.uk
Sun Dec 21 20:58:53 EST 2003


On Sun 21 Dec 2003 (17:04:16), albert.pietersma at sympatico.ca wrote:
> It seems to me, the mystery only arises when one tries to explain why a
>  translator would want to avoid translating 'ear' but opted for 'body'
> instead, the more since 'ear' makes excellent sense in light of the
> verse as a whole (an obvious echo of what is expressed in e.g. Ps
> 50:18-19 and I Rgns 15:22), and the more since that sort of translating
> is not in line with the Greek translator of Psalms.

 'Ear' also makes excellent sense in consideration of e.g. Isaiah 50:4b-5.

> On the other hand, since the VAST majority of changes/errors in
> transmission history are mechanical, and given the textlinguistics of
> the Greek Psalter, I for one can see no good reason for doubting the
> SWTIA > SWMA error.  To give a technologically modern version of
> Ockham's rule: KISS.

 Keep It Simple, Stupid!

> What remains in doubt, however, whether the author of Hebrew had SWMA
> in his source text, or whether he indulged in creative exegesis.

 The Westcott-Hort principle was, that the more difficult text is more likely
 to have been the original, and the clearer text more likely to have been the
 conjectural emendation.

 A dear senior mentor of mine many years ago said "When I get to Paradise I
 want to spend at least a hundred years asking Paul whether he wrote Hebrews,
 and if not, whoever else did".

 Happy Christmas!

 Ben
-- 
 Revd Ben Crick BA CF, and Mrs Joanna (Goodwin) Crick  ZFC Yb
 <ben.crick at NOSPAM.argonet.co.uk>
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