[B-Greek] Psalm 23:1 (22:1) LXX
Polycarp66 at aol.com
Polycarp66 at aol.com
Mon Dec 22 09:57:48 EST 2003
In a message dated 12/22/2003 9:02:47 AM Eastern Standard Time,
eweiss at gte.net writes:
The Greek of Ps. 23:1 (22:1 in LXX) reads "The Lord shepherds me" - POIMAINEI
- (i.e., a verb). My Hebrew skills are pretty poor, but it looks to me like
the word resh-ayin-yod (from the verb/root resh-ayin-heh), usually translated
as "my shepherd," is perhaps a participle(?) with a 1st-person suffix (is that
allowable in Hebrew), and thus could be translated as "shepherd of me" (i.e.,
a noun) or "shepherding me" (i.e., a participle, which often suffices for the
present tense in Hebrew). Is that what is going on here? And, if so, to what
extent does the LXX translate participles as present-tense verbs so that we end
up with renderings like "the Lord shepherds me"? If I've totally
misread/misunderstood the Hebrew here, you can disregard this question!
__________________________
You are correct that Ro(iY is a participle with 1 c.s. suff. It always
appears as a participle and could well be translated as "the one who shepherds me"
(though this would not be common English style). I'm not conversant enough
with the LXX practice in regard to the translation of participles to answer your
question regarding to what extent it may or may not translate participles "as
present tense verbs."
gfsomsel
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