[B-Greek] Psalm 23:1 (22:1) LXX
Albert Pietersma
albert.pietersma at sympatico.ca
Mon Dec 22 10:12:46 EST 2003
You are right on every count. In the case of R(H, Hebrew regularly uses
its qal participle as a nominal but also as a verbal, i.e. as a
so-called hymnic participle. In semantic terms, of course, it is an
event in both cases.
When a participle function in Hebrew as the main verb, G translates it
typically by a present tense verb. When that happens, the option that
may exist in Hebrew between "my shepherd" or "one who sherherds me" is
lost. Hence NETS (Ps 22) translates: "The Lords shepherds me".
Al
On Dec 22, 2003, at 9:01 AM, Eric Weiss wrote:
> The Greek of Ps. 23:1 (22:1 in LXX) reads "The Lord shepherds me" -
> POIMAINEI - (i.e., a verb). My Hebrew skills are pretty poor, but it
> looks to me like the word resh-ayin-yod (from the verb/root
> resh-ayin-heh), usually translated as "my shepherd," is perhaps a
> participle(?) with a 1st-person suffix (is that allowable in Hebrew),
> and thus could be translated as "shepherd of me" (i.e., a noun) or
> "shepherding me" (i.e., a participle, which often suffices for the
> present tense in Hebrew). Is that what is going on here? And, if so,
> to what extent does the LXX translate participles as present-tense
> verbs so that we end up with renderings like "the Lord shepherds me"?
> If I've totally misread/misunderstood the Hebrew here, you can
> disregard this question!
>
> Eric S. Weiss
> eweiss at gte.net
> http://home1.gte.net/vzn05pnm/index.htm
>
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—
Albert Pietersma
Professor of Septuagint and Hellenistic Greek
Near & Middle Eastern Civilizations
University of Toronto
Home: 21 Cross Street,
Weston ON Canada M9N 2B8
Email: albert.pietersma at sympatico.ca
Homepage: http://www.chass.utoronto.ca/~pietersm
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