[B-Greek] John 1:18b question (and John 1:8)

Jason Hare jason at hareplay.com
Tue Dec 23 16:38:36 EST 2003


Does this indicate that we should take every articular nominative singular
participle of EINAI to be a reference to someone's "deity"? Don't you think
you're grasping just a bit?

Regards,
Jason Hare
MSSU - Joplin, MO

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Eric Weiss" <eweiss at gte.net>
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Tuesday, December 23, 2003 1:51 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] John 1:18b question (and John 1:8)


> Is there any possibility that John wrote "... MONOGENHS QEOS hO WN EIS TON
KOLPON TOU PATROS" rather than "hOS ESTIN EIS TON KOLPON..." because of the
verbal link with Exodus 3:14 (LXX) in which YHWH says to Moses: "EGW EIMI hO
WN"? I.e., does the "hO WN" with reference to Jesus also subtly point to His
deity, as some of the EGW EIMI statements likely do?
>
> And (another question): Is the hN TO FWS... in 1:8, which sometimes
strikes me as a bit awkward (and if it isn't, scratch this question)
possibly written that way as a counter the OUK HN EKEINOS TO FWS... in 1:7?
The start of a new paragraph in 1:8 in N-A kind of hides this OUK HN ... TO
FWS vs. HN TO FWS relationship between 1:7 and 1:8.
>
> Eric S. Weiss
> eweiss at gte.net
> http://home1.gte.net/vzn05pnm/index.htm
>
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