[B-Greek] why not EN TWi SKOTWi,but EN TWi SKOTEI?

Clwinbery at aol.com Clwinbery at aol.com
Thu Mar 13 00:10:46 EST 2003


In a message dated 3/12/03 8:45:30 PM, davidlew at 163.com writes:

>Hi,
>
>
>
>    When I read I John 1.5-7, I find "in the darkness" as EN TWi SKOTEI.
>But I think why not EN TWi SKOWi?
>
>
>
>    Thanks from a freshman.    
David, are you talking about the fact that there are two words for "darkness?"

TO SKOTOS third declension that has its dative in SKOTEI and hH SKOTIA first 
declension. There is apparently no difference in meaning between the two.

A second post from David

    In my analytical lexicon there is AGAPAN in stead of AGAPAiN as the inf. 
of the verb AGAPAW.


    My question is that according to the contracting rule, the AGAPAW drops W 
first when forming its inf., and then adds EIN to the stem AGAPA-, and the 
ending letter A of the stem meets the forming ending EIN, after contracting 
comes AiN with a circumflex. So the inf. of AGAPAW should be AGAPAiN. But why 
the lexicon tells me a AGAPAN?

David the infinitive ending used with the active Present and second aorist is 
EN.
It combines with the thematic vowel E + EN = EIN, E + E contracts to EI.

with AGAPAW the combination is A + E + EN. A contracts with the first E = 
long A. The long alpha contracts with  the second E = long A thus producing 
the infinitive form AGAPAN with no I. The iota was never there because 
contraction of A + E + EN does not produce an EI.

Carlton Winbery
Louisiana College


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