[B-Greek] John 13:4-5 present tenses
Polycarp66 at aol.com
Polycarp66 at aol.com
Thu Mar 13 10:43:31 EST 2003
In a message dated 3/13/2003 9:48:48 AM Eastern Standard Time, eweiss at gte.net
writes:
> Stanley Porter seems to believe that time isn't a factor with ANY of the
> tenses, not even the indicative, as I recall from my reading of his
> Idioms book. In John 13:4-5, is this part of the explanation for the
> tenses here -- i.e., the present tense is being used to convey a
> continuous, deliberative activity, in contrast to the aorist tense which
> is simply stating the action?
>
> EGEIRETAI EK TOU DEIPNOU KAI TIQHSIN TA hIMATIA, KAI LABWN LENTION
> DIEZWSEN hEAUTON. EITE BALLEI hUDWR EIS TON NIPTHRA KAI HRXATO NIPTEIN
> TOUS PODAS TWN MAQHTWN KAI EKMASSEIV TWi LENTIWi hWi HN DIEZWSMENOS.
>
> "He [Jesus] rises (present m/p) from the supper and removes (present)
> his outer-garments, and after-taking (aorist ptc.) a towel he girded
> (aorist) himself; then he pours (present) water into the washbasin and
> he began (aorist) to-wash (present inf.) the feet of the disciples and
> to-wipe (present inf.) [them] with-the towel with-which he-is-girded
> (perfect ptc.)"
>
> Assuming I didn't make any transcription or copying or translation
> errors, is John depicting or conveying the actions of Jesus raising
> himself.and removing his outer garments and pouring the water and
> washing and wiping the disciples' feet as being more "vivid" or as
> continuous, protracted activities by his use of the present tense
> (indicative and infinitive) -- in contrast to the aorist for "he took a
> towel and girded himself" (and "began")?
>
> Normal English would probably translate this as: "Jesus rose from the
> supper and removed his outer garment, and took a towel and wrapped it
> around his waist. He then poured water into the washbasin and began to
> wash his disciples' feet and dry them with the towel he had wrapped
> around himself." All the presents would be changed to past tenses. Do we
> lose something by translating it into English this way, and if so, what
> do we lose -- i.e., what nuances or things did John mean to convey by
> these present tenses? Did he mean that Jesus slowly rose from the table,
> and carefully/methodically removed his outer garments, and slowly poured
> water into the washbasin, and slowly/deliberately/carefully washed and
> dried his disciples' feet?
>
I think what we have here is an historical present, i.e. the use of the
present tense to portray a past event in a vivid way so as to highlight it.
Wallace notes that John uses the historical present 162 times whereas Luke
uses it only 11 times. He also notes that it is used mostly by less educated
writers while more literary authors tend to avoid it. This would be in
keeping with the character of Luke as being "better Greek". It is notable
that John has no account of the supper itself. This may be the reason for
desiring to highlight the actions which occurred immediately following the
supper. It becomes the cultic highpoint.
gfsomsel
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