[B-Greek] adverbial participle
vanepps
vanepps at attbi.com
Mon Mar 31 02:22:17 EST 2003
Mr. Winbery,
I appreciate your attempt to unwind my dilema, but I am not speaking of Gal
2:11. I was questioning Paul's use, or better yet our English translation of
Gal 2:16. Normally the rendering of an adverbial perfect participle is
causal, in which case there are a number of examples of such use in Romans,
but as far as an English translation, none consider this use of "ohida" to
be causal. I am just wondering if there is an obvious reason for this, or if
context is what is running the translation? I think my original questions
were: Can someone please send me in the right
direction as far as reading material goes on the adverbial perfect
participle, to help me understand the translators decesion, or to better
inform me on my own decision making process?
The verse is given here:
hOTE DE HLQEN KHFAS EIS ANTIOCEIAN, KATA PROSWPON AUTWi ANTESTHN, hOTI
KATEGNWSMENOS HN.
That which indicates "cause" here is the subordinating conjunction hOTI. The
pluperfect is a periphrastic form that indicates an existing state during a
past time. At the time of the incounter in Antioch Peter was in a situation
of having been blamed. Many will translate it as "worthy" of blame, but I
think it can mean that the Gentile Christians had placed blame on him for
"caving" in to the Jerusalem Christians.
Carlton Winbery
Louisiana College
May God Bless,
--
Cameron P. VanEpps
215 W. Illinois St.
Bellingham, WA 98225
phone: (360) 715-8873
cell: (360) 319-6653
e-mail: vanepps at attbi.com
_______________________
:Reality is Marked by Contradiction!
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