[B-Greek] definition of syntax?

Wayne Leman wayne_leman at sil.org
Tue May 27 09:32:31 EDT 2003


> I am reading Wallace's Greek Grammar book where he
> refers to how a genitive can function when it involves
> a verbal noun (Subjective or Objective or Plenary).
> But to avoid confusion, he distinguishes verbal nouns
> (where there is a corresponding cognate verb) in
> general from infinitives specifically. Of infinitives,
> he says that an infinitive is a verbal noun
> "syntactically." That is not how I have learned to use
> this word. Is he using this term as others would?

Yes, Waldo, I think a number of analysts would use the term "syntactically"
here as Wallace has done. What Wallace means is that the infinitive is
functioning in the syntax (formal structure) of the language as if it were a
noun, even though it has been derived from a verb (hence, it is a verbal
noun).

> If
> not, how would you label an infinitive?

It can simply be called an infinitive which defines it in terms of its
morphology and a certain kind of syntactic function, with no reference to
how the infinitive relates to other linguistic forms which act similarly
syntactically. The more generic label "verbal noun" shows a syntactic
functional relationship of infinitives to other verbal nouns in Greek. This
has the advantage of helping us see groupings of morphologically dissimilar
forms which have a similar function.

"Verbal noun" is a very acceptable term and I find it helpful.

How have you used the term "syntax" which strikes you as different from
Wallace's usage of the term?

Wayne Leman
-----
Wayne Leman
http://committed.to/fieldtesting

>
>
> =====
> Waldo Slusher
> Calgary, AB




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