[B-Greek] Rev.1:10
Polycarp66 at aol.com
Polycarp66 at aol.com
Sun Nov 30 18:55:20 EST 2003
In a message dated 11/30/2003 6:16:44 PM Eastern Standard Time,
tmcos at rogers.com writes:
Dear Friends, I had a question re: Rev.1:10 and the use of the
term TH KURIAKH hHMERAi. I understand that this term is in the
dative and is commonly translated "Lord's day". Some argue that
this term is a reference to the "day of the Lord". However, the
genitive is not used here. Is this term a reference to the first day of
the week (Sunday) which the Early Church Fathers including the
Didache came to designate as the "Lord's day"? Is the rendering
"day of the Lord" an accurate translation of this verse? I beieve 1
Cor 11:20 also uses a similar construction when it refers to the
"Lord's Supper". Thanks in advance.
I would translate it as "the Lord's Day" even though it is not a genitive.
Compare the Vulgate translation where it is "in dominica die" > "dominus"
signifying "belonging to . . ." It is used even earlier (before 110 A.D. when
Ignatius was martyred) than the Didache (though that is quite early) by Ignatius
in his Epistle to the Magnesians which you can see at
http://www.ccel.org/l/lake/fathers/ignatius-magnesians.htm#IX
gfsomsel
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