[B-Greek] Rev.1:10

tmcos at rogers.com tmcos at rogers.com
Sun Nov 30 18:14:07 EST 2003


Dear Friends, I had a question re: Rev.1:10 and the use of the 
term TH KURIAKH hHMERAi.  I understand that this term is in the 
dative and is commonly translated "Lord's day". Some argue that 
this term is a reference to the "day of the Lord". However, the 
genitive is not used here. Is this term a reference to the first day of 
the week (Sunday) which the Early Church Fathers including the 
Didache came to designate as the "Lord's day"? Is the rendering 
"day of the Lord" an accurate translation of this verse? I beieve 1 
Cor 11:20 also uses a similar construction when it refers to the 
"Lord's Supper". Thanks in advance.

Tony Costa
University of Toronto


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