[B-Greek] Romans 1:16

Jeffrey B. Gibson jgibson000 at comcast.net
Fri Oct 10 11:25:22 EDT 2003


OU GAR EPAISXUNOMAI TO EUAGGELION, DUNAMIS GAR QEOU ESTIN SWTHRIAN

If memory serves (and I don't have the opportunity at the moment to
consult any commentaries) this statement by Paul is usually taken to be
an attempt at offering a definition of what the "gospel" **is** -- as if
somehow this needed clarifying.

But is there anything in the grammar and syntax of the text to give us
reason to believe that what Paul is doing is responding to a challenge?
That is to say, is there any grammatical or syntactical or stylistic
(or, if I might ask, contextual)  reason to see that what Paul is up to
here is not answering a question (what is the Gospel?, how do **you**
define it?),  but is defending a claim **about** what the (his) Gospel
is  **that is in dispute**  --  and is in effect saying something along
the lines of  "contrary to what has been said about  TO EUAGGELION, it
is indeed  the power of God for the purpose of Salvation?

Thanks in advance for any comments.

Yours,

Jeffrey


--

Jeffrey B. Gibson, D.Phil. (Oxon.)

1500 W. Pratt Blvd. #1
Chicago, IL 60626

jgibson000 at comcast.net





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