[B-Greek] Romans 1:16
David Rollins
david87350 at earthlink.net
Fri Oct 10 12:07:21 EDT 2003
From: "Jeffrey B. Gibson" <jgibson000 at comcast.net>
Date: Fri Oct 10, 2003 8:25:22 AM US/Pacific
To: Biblical Greek <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Cc: Corpus-Paulinum <corpus-paul at lists.ibiblio.org>
Subject: [B-Greek] Romans 1:16
OU GAR EPAISXUNOMAI TO EUAGGELION, DUNAMIS GAR QEOU ESTIN SWTHRIAN
If memory serves (and I don't have the opportunity at the moment to
consult any commentaries) this statement by Paul is usually taken to be
an attempt at offering a definition of what the "gospel" **is** -- as if
somehow this needed clarifying.
But is there anything in the grammar and syntax of the text to give us
reason to believe that what Paul is doing is responding to a challenge?
That is to say, is there any grammatical or syntactical or stylistic
(or, if I might ask, contextual) reason to see that what Paul is up to
here is not answering a question (what is the Gospel?, how do **you**
define it?), but is defending a claim **about** what the (his) Gospel
is **that is in dispute** -- and is in effect saying something along
the lines of "contrary to what has been said about TO EUAGGELION, it
is indeed the power of God for the purpose of Salvation?
Thanks in advance for any comments.
Yours,
Jeffrey
--
Jeffrey B. Gibson, D.Phil. (Oxon.)
1500 W. Pratt Blvd. #1
Chicago, IL 60626
jgibson000 at comcast.net
Jeffrey:
The question you bring up really is answered in the 15 verses
preceding verse 16 - but verse 15 I think answers your question:
OUTWS TO KAT' EME PROQUMON KAI UMIN TOIS EN RWMH EUANGGELISASQAI
Paul has not personally preached the gospel to the Romans - he wanted
to come to them to do just that (v.13), but has been hindered - he
feels his calling very deeply (v.14) - he then says , "so to the best
of my ability I am eager to preach the gospel also to those of you in
Rome" v.15). There is no dispute that I can detect in these preceding
verses that he wants to clear up - he is just eager to preach the
gospel (as he sees it) to them through this letter, since he may be
delayed in coming to them. Verse 16 is just the first statement of
Paul's gospel ( the explanation of which concludes at the end of
chapter 8) and is a sort of encapsulation. Does any one else see any
"controversy" that is up for discussion?
David Rollins.
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