[B-Greek] First Corinthians 14:18
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Wed Sep 24 09:22:23 EDT 2003
At 12:42 PM +0000 9/24/03, Mark Wilson wrote:
>
>Carl said it "probably" doesn't refer to number of languages because of his
>understanding
>of GLWSSA. Iver says it does not refer to number of languages because the
>adverb modifies
>the verb, "not the noun." But Mitch's question was "can" it mean both, and
>the answer is Yes.
While I appreciate Mark's confidence, I would have to disagree with the his
above-stated judgment. The text, if you'll recall, is:
EUCARISTWi TWi QEWi, PANTWN hUMWN MALLON GLWSSAIS LALW
I do not think that THIS CLAUSE can mean BOTH that Paul speaks "in
languages" (to use a neutral term) more 'than all of you' AND that Paul
speaks "in more languages" 'than all of you.' Iver is absolutely right that
MALLON can qualify only LALW. "Speak in more languages" would have to be
PLEIOSI(N) GLWSSAIS LALW. This is not a matter of speaking in more than one
GENOS GLWSSWN. Paul might have been able to do that too, but it is not what
he affirms here.
--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
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