[B-Greek] First Corinthians 14:18

waldo slusher waldoslusher at yahoo.com
Wed Sep 24 10:59:20 EDT 2003


Mark Wilson  wrote:

> Iver has indicated that the adverb modifies the verb
> and therefore it cannot 
> mean that
> one speaks "more languages." This is NOT at all
> true. It does modify 
> speaking, of course,
> but that says nothing as to whether or not the
> speaking is look upon with 
> frequency
> or number of languages. Since GLWSSA is plural, we
> already know that there 
> are MORE THAN
> ONE LANGUAGE being referenced. 

I fail to see where there is disagreement here
although I would have stated it differently than Mark
W. did. Iver's observation that MALLON modifies LALW
is true enough, but that really says nothing about the
sense of LALW to GLWSSAIS. I may be wrong on what the
original questions were after, but the question seemed
to me to be asking whether PANTWN hUMWN MALLON
GLWSSAIS LALW can be inferring that Paul spoke more
GLWSSA than the Corintians. I think that is what is
exactly stated with GLWSSAIS: Paul speaks many
languages, and more than the Corinthians do (not more
often). Iver, are you saying that the sense here is
Paul is affirming that he speaks in "languages" more
FREQUENTLY than do the Corinthians? That to me seems
foreign to this text. In fact, he tries to put
restraint on the proliferation of its use in this chapter.

=====
Waldo Slusher
Calgary, AB

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