[B-Greek] First Corinthians 14:18

Iver iver_larsen at sil.org
Wed Sep 24 13:30:26 EDT 2003


> Iver, are you saying that the sense here is
> Paul is affirming that he speaks in "languages" more
> FREQUENTLY than do the Corinthians? That to me seems
> foreign to this text. In fact, he tries to put
> restraint on the proliferation of its use in this chapter.
>
> =====
> Waldo Slusher

I thought I wouldn't say more on this because of our theological
differences, but since you ask me directly... And I did not see Carl's
latest response before I sent mine, but I am happy that we agree on the use
of MALLON.
If you read the context, especially the next verse, you will see the
contrast between speaking EN EKKLHSIAI 1000 words in an unintelligible
"language" using the spirit and 5 words in an intelligible language using
the mind. Whether Paul speaks more frequently than the Corinthians, I don't
think we can tell from the text. Maybe both speak every day, but Paul for
one hour and the others for 10 minutes? But he does say that he "speaks in
tongues" to a higher degree than them. Whether Paul speaks in the same
"language" every time he speaks in tongues, again I don't think we can tell
from the text.

Your last comment is missing the crucial contrast between *private*
"speaking in tongues" for one's own edification (v. 4) which Paul wants all
of them to do (v. 5), and *public* speaking without an interpretation. It is
this last action that Paul discourages because the EKKLHSIA is not edified
by it.

Iver Larsen




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