[B-Greek] Re: use of "lord" in NT

Raymond Custer leoncuster at yahoo.com
Wed Apr 28 01:38:03 EDT 2004


     I am fairly certain that the use of "Lord" in the NT is different by writer even though I have not found any grammars that sort this out for us. As best I can discover, Paul and John always called Jesus Lord and never callled The Father Lord.  The only exceptions were OT quotes from the Septuigent.  I would also note that the definite article was regularly used which seems to identify Jesus as "The Lord".   The definite article was also regularly used to identify The Father as "The God".  In their mind, it seems to me, they considered Jesus Lord and Master and The Father "The God" or.  
      Mathew  is different.  He regularly referred to both the Father and Son as "Lord".  However, he uses the definite article when referring to The Father and omits it when referring to The Son.
     I an having difficulty sorting out Lukes two books which seem more complicated.  If anyone can refute my conclusions, I would appretiate correction of and wrong conclusions that I have.
r, leon custer
kernersville, nc
leoncuster at yahoo.com



		
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