[B-Greek] Re: use of "lord" in NT
Oun Kwon
KwonO at upstate.edu
Wed Apr 28 19:09:27 EDT 2004
One small comment about 'lord':
When considering the word 'Lord' appearing in the N.T. we have to look into
the Greek froms. That is, 'the lord' (HO KURIOS nominative) and 'lord!'
(KURIE vocative) have to deal with separately.
E.g. John 20:28 'My Lord and my God'. Here it is NOT vocative. Since it
is nominative = HO KURIOS, it would be more appropriate to see that Thomas
was not calling 'my Lord!' to the risen Jesus (as a vocative should
indicate). However, (against anti-trinitarian perspective), I would expand
this to be translated as 'You are my Lord and my God' (Of course this may be
in exclamatory mode, requiring ! at the end but not taken as a vocative.)
(Here italics indicate add-ins after KJV convention.)
The vocative 'KURIE' without the article would be = 'Lord!' (the referent
being dependent on the context).
Those cases of 'Lord' in NT text from OT background (as in the nativity
narratives) or quotation by the Evangelists or Paul are obviously = 'LORD'
i.e. YHWH.
Sincerely.
Oun J Kwon, M.D.
SUNY Uptate Med University
Syracuse, NY
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