[B-Greek] Re: use of "lord" in NT
Oun Kwon
KwonO at upstate.edu
Wed Apr 28 20:13:28 EDT 2004
Hi, Tony,
I agree with you (mostly).
? That the nominative was used as vocative in Jn 20:28. - For me the words, nominative and vocative, are different grammatical terms. Probably meant to say that it was used as if or in place of.
"Common thing in Koine" - Does Robertson give some examples in his book? I love to see those.
Note:
As you pointed out again 'Thomas said to Him', but a non-trinitarian view (e.g. WT group) advocates that this phrase 'my Lord and my God' should be taken as in reference to the Father (YHWH), being bolstered by the fact that it is not vocative. That is the reason I have reached to come up with my own rendering which adds 'You are' to cleary show that Thomas was addressing it to the risen Lord.
Thanks.
Oun J Kwon, M.D.
SUNY Uptate Med University
Syracuse, NY
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