[B-Greek] Re: use of "lord" in NT
Tony Costa
tmcos at rogers.com
Wed Apr 28 20:45:59 EDT 2004
Oun, Daniel Wallace in his 'The Basics of New Testament Snytax: An
Intermediate Greek Grammar' (p.38) states that the vocative case appears
less than 1% in all of the NT.
I didn't do a full search on A.T.Robertson, but Wallace in the same book
(p.36) speaks of nominatives for vocatives and he lists 5 examples including
Jn.20:28. The other references are Rom 1:13; Gal 3:1; Luke 8:54 and Heb 1:8.
He also cites (p.37) Rom 7:24 and Rom 11:33 as examples of "Nominatives of
Exclamation" and states concerning these, "This use of the nominative is
actually a subcategory of the nominative for vocative." The argument that
this (Jn.20:28) is a reference to the Father I think fails on grammatical
grounds as the dative 3rd person pronoun clearly attributes this confession
to Jesus. NT scholars generally are agreed that Jn.20:28 is the climax of
the Fourth Gospel and that it brings the reader back to the Prologue in
Jn.1:1. Best,
Tony Costa
Toronto, Canada
----- Original Message -----
From: "Oun Kwon" <KwonO at upstate.edu>
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Wednesday, April 28, 2004 8:13 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Re: use of "lord" in NT
Hi, Tony,
I agree with you (mostly).
? That the nominative was used as vocative in Jn 20:28. - For me the
words, nominative and vocative, are different grammatical terms. Probably
meant to say that it was used as if or in place of.
"Common thing in Koine" - Does Robertson give some examples in his book? I
love to see those.
Note:
As you pointed out again 'Thomas said to Him', but a non-trinitarian view
(e.g. WT group) advocates that this phrase 'my Lord and my God' should be
taken as in reference to the Father (YHWH), being bolstered by the fact that
it is not vocative. That is the reason I have reached to come up with my
own rendering which adds 'You are' to cleary show that Thomas was addressing
it to the risen Lord.
Thanks.
Oun J Kwon, M.D.
SUNY Uptate Med University
Syracuse, NY
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