[B-Greek] 1 John 2:6

Wilson Hines wilsonhines at hotmail.com
Sat Aug 21 10:35:50 EDT 2004


I find it very interesting as well.  Not only that it is an infinitive, but
also that the word OPHELW is right beside it and in the AV it is translated
"ought."  The word OPHELW is more precisely translated as "owe."  I guess
you could translate that part of the text as such " He who says he is to
abide in Him owes it to himself to have walked (aorist)..."  


Full verse:
He who says he is to abide in Him owes it to himself to have walked just as
He walked.

Any input on my horrific translation skills?

Wilson Hines
wilson at wilsonhines.com 
www.wilsonhines.com  
919 394 4346  Phone/w Voice Mail
919 395 4806  Fax 
 
 
 

-----Original Message-----
From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Dony K. Donev
Sent: Saturday, August 21, 2004 9:43 AM
To: B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: [B-Greek] 1 John 2:6

I have a question about the translation of the infinitive of MENHN in 1 John
2:6. Actually, I am interested in the whole verse. I searched the archives,
but did not find any discussions on the verse.



Dony K. Donev

http://cupandcross.com


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