[B-Greek] 1 John 2:6
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Sat Aug 21 11:03:34 EDT 2004
The text, properly transliterated: hO LEGWN EN AUTWi MENEIN OFEILEI KAQWS
EKEINOS PERIEPATHSEN KAI AUTOS [hOUTWS] PERIPATEIN.
Transliteration scheme commonly used on BG may be checked at:
http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/
where there's a very neat diagram of corresponding Greek and ASCII
characters; a fuller account of it is at the end of the FAQ:
http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/faq.txt
The infinitive MENEIN has the same subject (nominative) as LEGWN; this is a
form of indirect discourse wherein the subject is in the nominative and
unexpressed if it is identical with the verb introducing the indirect
discourse: so the phrase, hO LEGWN EN AUTWi MENEIN actually means, "The one
who says that he abides in him ..."
While it is true that MENEIN is adjacent to OFEILEI, yet OFEILEI is the
chief verb of the main clause of which what precedes provides the subject,
and this OFEILEI is ultimately completed by the final infinitive PERIPATEIN.
The straightforward free version of the whole is:
"The one who claims that he abides in him ought (OFEILEI) himself
also (KAI AUTOS) to walk (i.e. conduct himself/behave) [just as (KAQWS)] He
(implicitly Jesus: EKEINOS] walked (PERIEPATHSEN)."
At 10:35 AM -0400 8/21/04, Wilson Hines wrote:
>I find it very interesting as well. Not only that it is an infinitive, but
>also that the word OPHELW is right beside it and in the AV it is translated
>"ought." The word OPHELW is more precisely translated as "owe." I guess
>you could translate that part of the text as such " He who says he is to
>abide in Him owes it to himself to have walked (aorist)..."
>
>
>Full verse:
>He who says he is to abide in Him owes it to himself to have walked just as
>He walked.
>
>Any input on my horrific translation skills?
>
>Wilson Hines
>wilson at wilsonhines.com
>www.wilsonhines.com
>919 394 4346 Phone/w Voice Mail
>919 395 4806 Fax
>
>
>
>
>-----Original Message-----
>From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
>[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Dony K. Donev
>Sent: Saturday, August 21, 2004 9:43 AM
>To: B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>Subject: [B-Greek] 1 John 2:6
>
>I have a question about the translation of the infinitive of MENHN in 1 John
>2:6. Actually, I am interested in the whole verse. I searched the archives,
>but did not find any discussions on the verse.
>
>
>
>Dony K. Donev
>
>http://cupandcross.com
>
>
>---
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--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
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