[B-Greek] Re: Semantic Domain of SARX

Barry Hofstetter nebarry at verizon.net
Thu Dec 2 13:52:26 EST 2004


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Kenneth Litwak" <javajedi2 at yahoo.com>
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thursday, December 02, 2004 12:19 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] Re: Semantic Domain of SARX


>   My point is not to argue here about the specific
> meaning of SARX in a given passage.  My point is that
> I have yet to be convinced that if you asked a person
> in Rome in the middle of the first century, "What does
> SARX refer to?", they might point to a body, they
> might point to a beef roast, they might use a SWMA as
> a synonym, but  they would not say SARX = (AMARTOLOS
> FUSIJ, or some other metaphorical idea.  That is
> simply not how SARX is used in Greek literature that I
> can see.  Therefore, a  lexicon should offer options
> for what the word meant to ancient Greek speakers and
> leave it to commentators if they wish to say that SARX
> is used by Paul to point to something metaphorical
> that goes well beyond the word's meaning.

Like any other terminology, the word reflects a range of usage.  If I say the 
word "inclination" what do I mean?  What comes to your mind?  But if I say:

The inclination of 20th century higher critics was to deconstruct the text in 
order to determine historically valid source materials..."

vs.

"The inclination of the hill is 46 degrees.."

It is clear what is intended.  In other words, there is no basic or inherent 
meaning of any given lexical item, only usage in context.  That is why I have 
been somewhat of an agnostic when it comes to those who insist that the 
"primary" meaning of the biblical usage must be done by comparison with 
extra-biblical literature current at the time.  While such a comparison is more 
than worthwhile, and may help us to determine the biblical author's use of the 
term, we have to be careful to allow the particular nuance to be determined by 
the context which the writer himself provides.  In the case of SARX, it becomes 
clear throughout the Pauline writings that Paul does not mean simply "meaty 
stuff hanging on our bones" but that he intends something like hAMARTOLOS 
FUSIS...

Now, I know you are not arguing the "basic meaning" fallacy, but all that to say 
that asking the typical Roman on the street the meaning of the word just isn't a 
helpful comparison, any more than walking up to a typical English speaker and 
asking him the meaning of "inclination" would be helpful in determining how a 
particular speaker is using the word.

[Extra credit: what do I mean by the term "agnostic" above?]

N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Adjunct Faculty, The Center for Urban Theological Studies
         Philadelphia, PA
http://www.cuts.edu
Adjunct Faculty, Reformed Theological Seminary
         Washington, D.C.
http://www.rts.edu/campuses/washington_dc/index.cfm

And me:
http://mysite.verizon.net/nebarry/

Opinions expressed by author of this message do not necessarily reflect the 
opinions of the institutions listed above... 




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