[B-Greek] (no subject)
Jim West
jwest at highland.net
Sun Dec 26 20:32:03 EST 2004
At 07:33 PM 12/26/2004, you wrote:
>>This has probably been a much discussed passage for B-Greek, but since I
>>am new here I would like to get your opinion of the word TELEION in 1
>>Cor. 13:10. My Analytical Greek New Testament with grammatical analysis
>>says that it is a pronomial adjective that is nominative/neuter/singular,
>>but doesn't the presence of the definite article mean that it is a
>>noun? If it were an adjective, shouldn't it read "when the perfection is
>>come..."? Also, what is the meaning of the word? Every translation I
>>have looked at renders it "perfection".
>
>John, George has given you correct information with regard to the
>substantive use of the adjective. However, why do you think all the
>translations are getting it wrong? Sounds a bit like the "true meaning of
>the word" fallacy...
I'm not really sure John is saying "all the translations are wrong" as you
here suggest. I read him as simply wondering the "why-ness" of the rendering.
To date, no one who has responded has offered a definition of "teleion"- so
I'll give it a whack. You are right in seeing that most translations
render it "perfect". However, this is not necessarily the best
translation. The word means something like "mature" or even in our
parlance "grown up" and only in a derivative way might it imply what we
mean by the word "perfect" - but only in the sense of "complete". The
verbal form in fact means "complete, bring to an end, finish, bring in full
measure", etc.
Nonetheless, when king jimbob commissioned his reworking of wycliffe,
"perfect" meant "complete" and not "without error or fault".
Best,
Jim
++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
http://web.infoave.net/~jwest Biblical Studies Resources
http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com Biblical Theology Weblog
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