[B-Greek] John 1:1
Jim West
jwest at highland.net
Tue Dec 28 16:55:08 EST 2004
At 04:49 PM 12/28/2004, you wrote:
>Is there any significance, then, for hO LOGOS in John 1:1 being a
>masculine noun?
The noun is masculine in form and thus it's to be expected that it would
occur in that form. So, no, there is no significance.
Best
Jim
++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD
http://web.infoave.net/~jwest Biblical Studies Resources
http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com Biblical Theology Weblog
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