[B-Greek] John 1:1

Jim West jwest at highland.net
Tue Dec 28 16:55:08 EST 2004


At 04:49 PM 12/28/2004, you wrote:

>Is there any significance, then, for hO LOGOS in John 1:1 being a 
>masculine noun?

The noun is masculine in form and thus it's to be expected that it would 
occur in that form.  So, no, there is no significance.

Best

Jim


++++++++++++++++++++
Jim West, ThD

http://web.infoave.net/~jwest Biblical Studies Resources
http://biblical-studies.blogspot.com Biblical Theology Weblog






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