[B-Greek] John 1:1
Doug Hoxworth
doughoxworth at yahoo.com
Tue Dec 28 17:06:28 EST 2004
>><John>
>>Is there any significance, then, for hO LOGOS in
John 1:1 being a masculine noun?
><Jim>
> The noun is masculine in form and thus it's to be
expected that it would occur in that form. So, no,
there is no significance.
<Doug>
It might be important to mention to John (in case he
may not be aware of this fact) that nouns are
typically found in only one gender (it is adjectives
that change gender in accordance with what they
modify). So it may be helpful to point out to John
that since there is not a feminine form of LOGOS (at
least that I know of) there is therefore zero
significance to it being a masculine noun--for there
is no other way that it CAN occur (at least that I
know of).
Doug Hoxworth
Luther Rice Seminary
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