[B-Greek] 1 Peter 1:15
craig
newsgroupstuff at swiftdsl.com.au
Fri Dec 31 18:44:40 EST 2004
> >CWC:
> >... it leaves completely unanswered why a form such as GENHQHTE is
> >semantically equivalent to the more erstwhile more common
> form GENESQE,
Why do you think Peter changes from GENESQE in 1:16 LXX quote to GENHQHTE in
1:15?
Is it evidence that they mean the same thing, or is he making a subtle
distinction (if so, what)?
Craig Johnson
Brisbane, Australia
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