[B-Greek] 1 Peter 1:15

craig newsgroupstuff at swiftdsl.com.au
Fri Dec 31 18:44:40 EST 2004


> >CWC:
> >... it leaves completely unanswered why a form such as GENHQHTE is 
> >semantically equivalent to the more erstwhile more common 
> form GENESQE, 

Why do you think Peter changes from GENESQE in 1:16 LXX quote to GENHQHTE in
1:15?

Is it evidence that they mean the same thing, or is he making a subtle
distinction (if so, what)?

Craig Johnson
Brisbane, Australia 




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