[B-Greek] 1 Peter 1:15

craig newsgroupstuff at swiftdsl.com.au
Fri Dec 31 18:57:03 EST 2004


> > >CWC:
> > >... it leaves completely unanswered why a form such as GENHQHTE is
> > >semantically equivalent to the more erstwhile more common 
> > form GENESQE,
> 
> Why do you think Peter changes from GENESQE in 1:16 LXX quote 
> to GENHQHTE in
> 1:15?
> 
> Is it evidence that they mean the same thing, or is he making a subtle
> distinction (if so, what)?

Further, any comments about LXX related verses in Leviticus actually using
ESESQE (future) and not GENESQE? (I notice there may be a variant of 1 Peter
1:16 with ESESQE, but my apparatus isn't that great...)

Craig Johnson
Brisbane, Australia 




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