[B-Greek] LXX and Luke 3:22, Matthew 3:17, Mark 1:11

Chet Creider creider at uwo.ca
Sun Feb 1 10:17:32 EST 2004


In Volume 1 of _A Grammar of NT Greek_, pp. 134-5, Moulton discusses the 
aorist in EN SOI EUDOKHSA in Mk 1:11, etc. and characterizes it as being 
"at a time which is not defined" (cf. Rod Decker's "temporally unrestricted 
aorist" -- p. 98 in his _Temporal Deixis of the Greek Verb in the Gospel of 
Mark with Reference to Verbal Aspect_). He then also considers the 
possibility that it is, as the aorist often is in Sanskrit, the aorist of 
the immediate past.  In the second volume, Howard repeats these 
possibilities but also points to a passage in Isaiah 42:1 where a Hebrew 
perfect of a stative verb is rendered in the LXX with an aorist.  The form 
in the version of the LXX referred to by Howard is in fact EUDOKHSEN 
although this is not the form given in Rahlfs, which has PROSEDEXATO 
(Howard gives this form also indicating that it is in B -- does this mean 
Vaticanus?).  I would be very grateful if those on the list who know Hebrew 
and who are familiar with LXX scholarship would be so good as to indicate 
what the history of EUDOKHSEN in this verse in Isaiah is and also indicate 
what they think of Howard's LXX-based explanation of the occurrence of the 
aorist in these NT passages.

With thanks,

Chet Creider




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