[B-Greek] LXX and Luke 3:22, Matthew 3:17, Mark 1:11
Chet Creider
creider at uwo.ca
Sun Feb 1 10:17:32 EST 2004
In Volume 1 of _A Grammar of NT Greek_, pp. 134-5, Moulton discusses the
aorist in EN SOI EUDOKHSA in Mk 1:11, etc. and characterizes it as being
"at a time which is not defined" (cf. Rod Decker's "temporally unrestricted
aorist" -- p. 98 in his _Temporal Deixis of the Greek Verb in the Gospel of
Mark with Reference to Verbal Aspect_). He then also considers the
possibility that it is, as the aorist often is in Sanskrit, the aorist of
the immediate past. In the second volume, Howard repeats these
possibilities but also points to a passage in Isaiah 42:1 where a Hebrew
perfect of a stative verb is rendered in the LXX with an aorist. The form
in the version of the LXX referred to by Howard is in fact EUDOKHSEN
although this is not the form given in Rahlfs, which has PROSEDEXATO
(Howard gives this form also indicating that it is in B -- does this mean
Vaticanus?). I would be very grateful if those on the list who know Hebrew
and who are familiar with LXX scholarship would be so good as to indicate
what the history of EUDOKHSEN in this verse in Isaiah is and also indicate
what they think of Howard's LXX-based explanation of the occurrence of the
aorist in these NT passages.
With thanks,
Chet Creider
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