[B-Greek] LXX and Luke 3:22, Matthew 3:17, Mark 1:11

Albert Pietersma albert.pietersma at sympatico.ca
Sun Feb 1 13:35:16 EST 2004


It seems to me a short circuit has occurred. If according to Howard Isa 
42:1 has EUDOKHSEN he is not making reference to LXX Isa 42:1 (whether 
Rahlfs or Ziegler) but to the version of Isa 42:1-4 as we have it in 
Matthew 12:18-21. That version does indeed  have EUDOKHSEN as well as 
many others variants from the OG text of Ziegler. If you have access to 
Ziegler, you will see that Matt 12 figures prominently in his apparatus 
criticus. According to Ziegler, however, EUDOKHSEN has no attestation 
in any textual witness for Isa 42:1. What is interesting about it is 
that Hebrew RCH is often translated by EUDOKEW in the LXX, though not 
in Isaiah. Hence Ziegler's notation: (EIS) ON EUDOKHSEN Matth.: cf. 
M(T).
As for temporal reference, I should think that in both versions of Isa 
42:14 (Matt 12 and Ziegler) the verb is past, as one might in any case 
expect as a gloss for a Hebrew perfect (which is not to say that the 
Hebrew of Isa 42:1 must be past).
Al

On Feb 1, 2004, at 10:17 AM, Chet Creider wrote:

> In Volume 1 of _A Grammar of NT Greek_, pp. 134-5, Moulton discusses 
> the aorist in EN SOI EUDOKHSA in Mk 1:11, etc. and characterizes it as 
> being "at a time which is not defined" (cf. Rod Decker's "temporally 
> unrestricted aorist" -- p. 98 in his _Temporal Deixis of the Greek 
> Verb in the Gospel of Mark with Reference to Verbal Aspect_). He then 
> also considers the possibility that it is, as the aorist often is in 
> Sanskrit, the aorist of the immediate past.  In the second volume, 
> Howard repeats these possibilities but also points to a passage in 
> Isaiah 42:1 where a Hebrew perfect of a stative verb is rendered in 
> the LXX with an aorist.  The form in the version of the LXX referred 
> to by Howard is in fact EUDOKHSEN although this is not the form given 
> in Rahlfs, which has PROSEDEXATO (Howard gives this form also 
> indicating that it is in B -- does this mean Vaticanus?).  I would be 
> very grateful if those on the list who know Hebrew and who are 
> familiar with LXX scholarship would be so good as to indicate what the 
> history of EUDOKHSEN in this verse in Isaiah is and also indicate what 
> they think of Howard's LXX-based explanation of the occurrence of the 
> aorist in these NT passages.
>
> With thanks,
>
> Chet Creider
>
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>
—
Albert Pietersma
Professor of Septuagint and Hellenistic Greek
Near & Middle Eastern Civilizations
University of Toronto
Home: 21 Cross Street,
Weston ON Canada M9N 2B8
Email: albert.pietersma at sympatico.ca
Homepage: http://www.chass.utoronto.ca/~pietersm




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