[B-Greek] On the Perfect Tense

Con Campbell concampbell at netspace.net.au
Wed Feb 25 18:47:05 EST 2004


Waldo,

For clarification: are you saying that this is what stative aspect IS,
properly understood, or that this is your understanding of the Perfect
tense-form, in contradistinction from what is called stative aspect?

The reason I ask is that you mention Fanning, who does not attribute stative
aspect to the perfect, but regards stativity as an Aktionsart rather than an
aspect.

Con Campbell,
Canberra, Australia


-----Original Message-----
From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
[mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of waldo slusher
Sent: Thursday, February 26, 2004 8:46 AM
To: b-greek question
Subject: [B-Greek] On the Perfect Tense

We were recently provided with a website, Filologia, where articles are
available to review. The article on the Perfect Tense is one I had read a
long time ago. 

There is in my opinion a noticeable misunderstanding of the "stative aspect"
of the Perfect Tense form.

The Perfect Tense Form (Indicative) does denote the state obtained from an
anterior action/event, but what it does NOT imply is that the state obtained
runs on indefinitely... all the way up to the present moment.

If the Deictic Center is in the PAST, then the state obtained only holds up
to the (PAST) TIME of the Deictic Center. If the results continue beyond
that, say up to the present TIME (not addressed in the context), that would
not be related to the Perfect Tense Form.

I would agree with Fanning concerning the dual temporal nature of the
Perfect Indicative, but not if he means that the state obtained goes beyond
a PAST, contextually developed, Deictic Point. All the Perfect Indicative
would imply is that an event/action took place anterior to the DC, and that
at the time of the DC, the state obtained still held.

=====
Waldo Slusher
Calgary, AB

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