[B-Greek] On the Perfect Tense
waldo slusher
waldoslusher at yahoo.com
Wed Feb 25 16:45:59 EST 2004
We were recently provided with a website, Filologia,
where articles are available to review. The article on
the Perfect Tense is one I had read a long time ago.
There is in my opinion a noticeable misunderstanding
of the "stative aspect" of the Perfect Tense form.
The Perfect Tense Form (Indicative) does denote the
state obtained from an anterior action/event, but what
it does NOT imply is that the state obtained runs on
indefinitely... all the way up to the present moment.
If the Deictic Center is in the PAST, then the state
obtained only holds up to the (PAST) TIME of the
Deictic Center. If the results continue beyond that,
say up to the present TIME (not addressed in the
context), that would not be related to the Perfect
Tense Form.
I would agree with Fanning concerning the dual
temporal nature of the Perfect Indicative, but not if
he means that the state obtained goes beyond a PAST,
contextually developed, Deictic Point. All the Perfect
Indicative would imply is that an event/action took
place anterior to the DC, and that at the time of the
DC, the state obtained still held.
=====
Waldo Slusher
Calgary, AB
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