TIS and grammatical gender (Was Re: [B-Greek] 1 Timothy 5:8
Kathleen Creager
kathleen.creager at comcast.net
Fri Jan 16 12:19:55 EST 2004
Maybe it's just me, but it seems to me that today's contributions to this
thread have all substantially agreed with each other, i.e. that masculine
grammatical gender does not necessarily imply masculine nature, but somehow
are being read as disagreements.
> In a message dated 1/16/2004 11:33:21 AM Eastern Standard Time,
> eluchil404 at yahoo.com writes:
> >The phrasing "Let he who speaks keep quiet in
> > church and speak to himself and God" which Grudem
> > evidently prefers is only accurate where he/him is the
> > the singular pronoun of indefinate gender. IF such an
> > interpretation is not availible than that translation
> > is not accurate.
My understanding of Cirk Bejnar's point above (Cirk, obviously, please
correct me if I'm wrong):
is that use of the singular he/him in English, while it may have been
interpreted as gender neutral by most people at some point in the past, is
currently interpreted by many if not most as meaning exclusively male. And,
for that reason, use of the plural in English better conveys the sense of
the Greek. Which, I think, agrees with Ann Nyland. And with the many of
you who have been discussing this today!
Kathleen Creager
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