TIS and grammatical gender (Was Re: [B-Greek] 1 Timothy 5:8
Paul Zellmer
paul at smcfm.org
Fri Jan 16 15:52:27 EST 2004
Since we have all basically agreed that grammatical gender does not require
the interpretation of actual gender, would it be too much to ask the list to
leave the argument of translation with the translation list? Whether or not
the current interpretation "by many if not most" stated below is accurate
(and that accuracy, BTW, is very much in question across the board), the
English interpretation does not seem to have any real influence on most of
the responders' understanding of the Greek text.
I left the translation list to stop having to cut through these PC arguments
that added little or nothing to the understanding of the text. Please, can
we take it there if it is really important to us?
Paul Zellmer
Orangeburg, SC
> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
> [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org]On Behalf Of Kathleen Creager
> Sent: Friday, January 16, 2004 12:20 PM
> To: Polycarp66 at aol.com; eluchil404 at yahoo.com; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: TIS and grammatical gender (Was Re: [B-Greek] 1 Timothy 5:8
>
>
> Maybe it's just me, but it seems to me that today's contributions to this
> thread have all substantially agreed with each other, i.e. that masculine
> grammatical gender does not necessarily imply masculine nature,
> but somehow
> are being read as disagreements.
>
> > In a message dated 1/16/2004 11:33:21 AM Eastern Standard Time,
> > eluchil404 at yahoo.com writes:
> > >The phrasing "Let he who speaks keep quiet in
> > > church and speak to himself and God" which Grudem
> > > evidently prefers is only accurate where he/him is the
> > > the singular pronoun of indefinate gender. IF such an
> > > interpretation is not availible than that translation
> > > is not accurate.
>
> My understanding of Cirk Bejnar's point above (Cirk, obviously, please
> correct me if I'm wrong):
> is that use of the singular he/him in English, while it may have been
> interpreted as gender neutral by most people at some point in the past, is
> currently interpreted by many if not most as meaning exclusively
> male. And,
> for that reason, use of the plural in English better conveys the sense of
> the Greek. Which, I think, agrees with Ann Nyland. And with the many of
> you who have been discussing this today!
>
> Kathleen Creager
>
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