[B-Greek] John 8:40
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Thu Jan 22 21:00:39 EST 2004
At 7:39 PM -0500 1/22/04, <bertdehaan at gosympatico.ca> wrote:
>NUN DE ZHTEITE ME APOKTEINAI ANQRWPON hOS THN ALHQEIAN hUMIN LELALHKA,
>
>"and now you seek to kill me, a man who has spoken the truth to you".
>This is how most translations translate this passage, and it makes good
>sense. My question is; Why is there a "mix-up" of persons,ie: ANQRWPON 3rd
>person,and the verb LELALHKA 1st person.
There's no real mix-up at all; the Greek follows its own logic. Although
Jesus could have said hOS ... LELALHKEN, he chooses to view ME as the
antecedent of hOS and therefore puts the verb in the first person. The
translations are adapted to more natural English.
--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
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