[B-Greek] Matthew 26:29 and TOUTOU TOU
Maurice A. O'Sullivan
mauros at iol.ie
Sun Jan 25 18:26:49 EST 2004
At 21:11 25/01/2004, Harold R. Holmyard III wrote:
>I know you are just trying to explain
>the translation "any," but is it a good translation?
Precisely -- since the original posting asked:
>based on the assumption that it is a so-called Latinate
>use of the Greek (if my terminology is not mistaken). Could anyone
explain this idea
>of a "Latinate use" of the Greek with regard to TOUTOU TOU to me?
and it was Moule who made the Latin connection.
That was the strictly grammatical part of the matter. Then you go on to ask:
>Is it an unemphatic
>usage? It is the institution of the Lord's Supper, a highly significant
>moment, and Jesus uses the demonstrative of the bread in verse 26 and of
>the wine in verse 28, where the translations clearly should be "this." Why
>should the demonstrative in verse 29 be treated differently?
and I beg Carl's forbearance if here we are straying into interpretation,
but as the JB footnote (i) to its text of v.29 >>....... I shall not drink
wine << has it:
>> Allusion to the eschatological banquet, cf. 8;11 and 22:1 ff. Jesus
and his disciples will never meet at table again <<
Also, Newman, B. M., & Stine, P. C. (1992). A handbook on the Gospel of
Matthew. New York: United Bible Societies
sees a problem in the assumption that what is valid in v.26, 28 must also
be valid in v.29
>>> "Never again drink this wine" of TEV translates not drink again of
this fruit of the vine. Although TEV has effectively rendered the idiomatic
expression fruit of the vine as "wine," it has created another problem.
That is, the combination of "never again ... this wine" may suggest that
Jesus will drink the same wine again in the kingdom. Both GeCL 1st edition
and Phps have "I will drink no more wine," which resolves the problem. <<<
Regards,
Maurice
Maurice A. O'Sullivan [ Bray, Ireland ]
mauros at iol.ie
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