[B-Greek] Matthew 26:29 and TOUTOU TOU

B. Ward Powers bwpowers at optusnet.com.au
Sun Jan 25 18:20:44 EST 2004


Greetings Harold (et al.).

At 08:11 AM 040126, Harold R. Holmyard III wrote:
>Dear Maurice,


[SNIP]



>It is the institution of the Lord's Supper, a highly significant
>moment, and Jesus uses the demonstrative of the bread in verse 26 and of
>the wine in verse 28, where the translations clearly should be "this." Why
>should the demonstrative in verse 29 be treated differently? And even if
>the unemphatic "any" were used, shouldn't it be "any more wine"? Jesus was
>drinking wine on that occasion, perhaps as He spoke.



Perhaps he was. Perhaps. Just to mention that there are some of us who 
think otherwise about Jesus drinking wine. Neither the text of Matthew 
which is under discussion, nor any other Gospel, nor Paul's discussion of 
the Last Supper, in the context of discussing the Lord's Supper (1 Cor 11), 
say that Jesus drank wine. Nor that there was wine in the cup he took, nor 
that wine was used at the institution of the Lord's Supper at all. The 
texts refer to "the fruit of the vine". That this means "fermented wine" is 
nowhere mentioned in the Greek: this latter is a deduction from the 
assumption that Jesus and his disciples were holding a Passover evening, 
and that fermented wine was necessarily used on such an occasion. Which, in 
the opinion of some people (including me), goes beyond what the text says 
or the evidence indicates.

Just to place another view alongside the assumption which you have taken as 
a "given" in your comment.

Best regards,

Ward Powers


                                http://www.netspace.net.au/~bwpowers
Rev Dr B. Ward Powers        Phone (International): 61-2-8714-7255
259A Trafalgar Street          Phone (Australia): (02) 8714-7255
PETERSHAM  NSW  2049      email: bwpowers at optusnet.com.au
AUSTRALIA.                         Director, Tyndale College




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