[B-Greek] QEOS a proper name?

Tony Costa tmcos at rogers.com
Mon Jul 26 20:44:46 EDT 2004


Some scholars have made this point. One is I.Howard Marshall in'The Origins
of New Testament Christology' (Downers Grove, Illinois: InterVarsity Press,
1976) on p.83. "...in New Testament times 'Christ' developed into a name for
Jesus (eg. Rom.5:6, 8; 1 Cor.1:12, 17; Heb.3:6; 9:11)" Marhsall does also
point out that CHRISTOS is primarily a title. The Catholic Encyclopedia
(s.v. Jesus Christ, Origin of the Name) also states "Only after the
Resurrection did the title [Christ] gradually pass into a proper name, and
the expression Jesus Christ or Christ Jesus became only one designation."
(The Catholic Encyclopedia, Volume VIII (New York: Robert Appleton Company,
1910)

Tony Costa


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "ann nyland" <accuratebibles at ozemail.com.au>
To: <B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Cc: "Tony Costa" <tmcos at rogers.com>
Sent: Monday, July 26, 2004 7:38 PM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] QEOS a proper name?


> What is the evidence for Christos being used by Paul as a proper name?
> Ann Nyland
>
> ----- Original Message ----- 
> From: "Tony Costa" <tmcos at rogers.com>
> To: <B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
> Sent: Tuesday, July 27, 2004 9:04 AM
> Subject: [B-Greek] QEOS a proper name?
>
>
> Dear Friends, did QEOS ever achieve a proper name status in the Pauline
> letters ( I am including here the "disputed letters" as well) as a
reference
> to the Father? I understand that CHRISTOS was used by Paul as a proper
name
> for Jesus, although it was originally titular (as "the anointed one"). If
> this is the case, does the presence of the article with QEOS and CHRISTOS
> render these words titular rather than proper names? Many thanks.
>
> Tony Costa
> ---
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