[B-Greek] Genitive in 2 Cor 1:5

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Wed Jun 2 16:34:19 EDT 2004


At 3:11 PM -0400 6/2/04, William W. Combs wrote:
>I have a question about the phrase in 2 Cor 1:5 "the sufferings of
>Christ" (TA PAQHMATA TOU XRISTOU), particularly the use of genitive. I
>notice that the NET Bible, in their footnote, says: "The genitive could
>be considered to have a causative nuance here." Is there any real
>evidence for a causative genitive? I notice that Wallace does not seem
>to have such a category in his Grammar.

The adnominal genitive is a structural category linking the genitive-case
noun to another noun; there are no inherent semantic indicators in the
Greek phrase as such; it simply means "Christ-sufferings." Any notions of
how the two elements in that phrase are intended to be understood in
relationship to each other must be derived altogether from the context or
guessed at.
-- 

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/



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