[B-Greek] Genitive in 2 Cor 1:5

William W. Combs wcombs at dbts.edu
Wed Jun 2 15:11:54 EDT 2004


I have a question about the phrase in 2 Cor 1:5 "the sufferings of 
Christ" (TA PAQHMATA TOU XRISTOU), particularly the use of genitive. I 
notice that the NET Bible, in their footnote, says: "The genitive could 
be considered to have a causative nuance here." Is there any real 
evidence for a causative genitive? I notice that Wallace does not seem 
to have such a category in his Grammar.
----
Bill Combs
Detroit Baptist Theological Seminary




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