[B-Greek] Rom 1,17 prep phrase

Carl W. Conrad cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Sun Jun 13 09:09:18 EDT 2004


At 7:54 AM -0500 6/13/04, Harold R. Holmyard III wrote:
>Dear list,
>
>I am in controversy with a universalist, and we are discussing I Cor
>15:22, where one has:
>
>1Cor. 15:22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.
>
>He think that in context this verse implies that everyone will be
>resurrected to glory. I pointed out that the proper nouns Adam and
>Christ are preceded by definite articles, but proper nouns usually
>usually lack the article. The definite articles before Adam and
>Christ in Greek suggest that these could be something other than
>strictly proper names. Rather, they might function conceptually to
>represent spheres or collectives. This is the first mention of Adam
>in the context, so it cannot be the definite article of previous
>reference.
>
>Does this suggestion have merit? Am I overlooking something? Thanks.

(1) It would help if you'd cite the Greek text rather than cite a
translation and then talk about the Greek text.
(2) If the question is to be posed seriously, it ought to be dislodged from
an apologetic context--the attempt to prove or disprove a doctrinal
stance--and asked in its own right strictly in terms of grammar and
immediate context.
-- 

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/



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