[B-Greek] John 19:27 TA IDIA
Tony Costa
tmcos at rogers.com
Tue Jun 15 18:05:49 EDT 2004
John 19:27, ELABEN hO MAQHTHS AUTHN EIS TA IDIA. Most translations of this text render TA IDIA as "his home", "his household", etc. IDIA (from IDIOS) means "his own" and it is a neuter adjective here. Why do most translators render this passage as indicating the disciple's house? IDIOS carries the meaning of pertaining to one's self, one's own, belonging to one's self. The thrust in this passage is that the disciple was to take the mother of Jesus as his own mother and care for her. Why the insertion of house or home here in most translations? Is this because house/home infers familial ties?
Tony Costa
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