[B-Greek] John 19:27 TA IDIA
Carl W. Conrad
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
Tue Jun 15 19:21:42 EDT 2004
At 6:05 PM -0400 6/15/04, Tony Costa wrote:
>John 19:27, ELABEN hO MAQHTHS AUTHN EIS TA IDIA. Most translations of this
>text render TA IDIA as "his home", "his household", etc. IDIA (from
>IDIOS) means "his own" and it is a neuter adjective here. Why do most
>translators render this passage as indicating the disciple's house? IDIOS
>carries the meaning of pertaining to one's self, one's own, belonging to
>one's self. The thrust in this passage is that the disciple was to take
>the mother of Jesus as his own mother and care for her. Why the insertion
>of house or home here in most translations? Is this because house/home
>infers familial ties?
See BDAG s.v. 4. person or thing associated with an entity and subheading
b. home, possessions. I'd think this works much the same way as French
'chez soi' or German 'bei sich.'
--
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
1989 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad at artsci.wustl.edu
WWW: http://www.ioa.com/~cwconrad/
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