[B-Greek] John 19:27 TA IDIA
George F. Somsel
gfsomsel at juno.com
Tue Jun 15 19:21:17 EDT 2004
On Tue, 15 Jun 2004 18:05:49 -0400 "Tony Costa" <tmcos at rogers.com>
writes:
> John 19:27, ELABEN hO MAQHTHS AUTHN EIS TA IDIA. Most translations of
> this text render TA IDIA as "his home", "his household", etc. IDIA
> (from IDIOS) means "his own" and it is a neuter adjective here. Why
> do most translators render this passage as indicating the disciple's
> house? IDIOS carries the meaning of pertaining to one's self, one's
> own, belonging to one's self. The thrust in this passage is that the
> disciple was to take the mother of Jesus as his own mother and care
> for her. Why the insertion of house or home here in most
> translations? Is this because house/home infers familial ties?
>
___________
I recopied your transcription so as to have it set off by itself rather
that hidden within the paragraph.
ELABEN hO MAQHTHS AUTHN EIS TA IDIA
Note that TA IDIA is a neuter. It therefore should not refer to an
understood OIKON (m.s.). This seems, however, to not be the case since
Polybius, Appian, etc. using TA IDIA as meaning "home." (see BAGD or
BDAG). Note Esther 5.10 (LXX)
KAI EISELQWN EIS TA IDIA EKALESEN TOUS FILOUS KAI ZWSARAN THN GUNAIKA
AUTOU
where it fairly clearly must mean "home."
gfsomsel
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