Fwd: Re: [B-Greek] 1 Timothy 2:12
Gerald Ford
sherlockplace at yahoo.com
Thu Jun 24 23:48:16 EDT 2004
--- Gerald Ford <sherlockplace at yahoo.com> wrote:
> Date: Mon, 21 Jun 2004 04:46:43 -0700 (PDT)
> From: Gerald Ford <sherlockplace at yahoo.com>
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] 1 Timothy 2:12
> To: Oetla Simankane <yet_yeta at yahoo.com>
>
> May I suggest the book, I Suffer Not a Woman, by
> Catherine Kroeger. She shows, with excellent
> scholarship, that Paul was arguing against Ophitic
> Gnosticism in the text, and was not saying women
> should not be teachers, ministers, etc. (not in this
> or any other text) See also
> http://www.cbeinternational.org
>
> Gerald Ford
>
>
> -- Oetla Simankane <yet_yeta at yahoo.com> wrote:
> > In 1 Timothy 2:12, Paul uses, DIDASKEIN (present
> > infinitive) instead of DIDAXAI (aorist
> infinitive).
> > What effect does this have on the meaning of the
> > text. Is it correct, from the above observation,
> to
> > suggest that Paul did not allow women to be
> > teachers, yet he may have allowed them to engage
> in
> > the act of teaching.
> >
> > Oetla Simankane
> > Greek student
> > Avondale College
> >
> >
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>
>
> =====
> Gerald Ford, M.Div., M.A., LPC, LMFT
> http://www.christiancounselinghouston.com
>
>
>
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=====
Gerald Ford, M.Div., M.A., LPC, LMFT
http://www.christiancounselinghouston.com
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