Fwd: Re: [B-Greek] 1 Timothy 2:12

George F. Somsel gfsomsel at juno.com
Fri Jun 25 01:21:13 EDT 2004


On Thu, 24 Jun 2004 20:48:16 -0700 (PDT) Gerald Ford
<sherlockplace at yahoo.com> writes:
> --- Gerald Ford <sherlockplace at yahoo.com> wrote:
> > Date: Mon, 21 Jun 2004 04:46:43 -0700 (PDT)
> > From: Gerald Ford <sherlockplace at yahoo.com>
> > Subject: Re: [B-Greek] 1 Timothy 2:12 
> > To: Oetla Simankane <yet_yeta at yahoo.com>
> > 
> > May I suggest the book, I Suffer Not a Woman, by
> > Catherine Kroeger. She shows, with excellent
> > scholarship, that Paul was arguing against Ophitic
> > Gnosticism in the text, and was not saying women
> > should not be teachers, ministers, etc. (not in this
> > or any other text) See also
> > http://www.cbeinternational.org
> > 
> > Gerald Ford
> > 
> > 
> > -- Oetla Simankane <yet_yeta at yahoo.com> wrote:
> > > In 1 Timothy 2:12, Paul uses, DIDASKEIN (present
> > > infinitive) instead of DIDAXAI (aorist
> > infinitive).
> > > What effect does this have on the meaning of the
> > > text. Is it correct, from the above observation,
> > to
> > > suggest that Paul did not allow women to be
> > > teachers, yet he may have allowed them to engage
> > in
> > > the act of teaching.
> > >  
____________________

Our purpose is not to discuss whether or not there should be gender
equity in churches but rather to simply discuss what the text happens to
state.  When it comes to the doctrinal framework into which one might
wish to place the statement of the text, that is not something which
belongs here.

DIDASKEIN DE GUNAIKI OUK EPITREPW OUDE AUQENTEIN ANDROS, ALL' EINAI EN
hHSUXIAi

But I do not permit a woman [permit for a woman] to teach nor to have
authority over a man but to remain in silence.

The infinitives here are complementary, i.e. they complete the thought of
the main verb and thus explain what it is that is [not] permitted.

gfsomsel



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