[B-Greek] Matthew's SU LEGW
Iver Larsen
iver_larsen at sil.org
Fri Jun 25 14:22:23 EDT 2004
> Eddie said
>
> Re: Mt 26:25
>
> >> The MHTI seems to imply that Judas was anticipating
> >> a NEGATIVE answer, right? (I am not the one am I?)
>
> I am not sure whether Judas knows what he is really going to do with the
> tumoil in his psychology. What would be his pschology at this juncture? I
> am curious why Judas should be asking this question (was it a
> reflexive one?
> did he want to know Jesus being aware of his plot?) and what answer he
> expects; if the answer was positive and definite (something like,
> It is you
> who is going to betray), then what? If the anwer was negative
> and definte
> (something like, it is not you who is goint to betray), then would he be
> smiling inside (saying 'It's very good; He is not aware and the plot is
> going to work very well) or he be in retreat or even in repent?
Judas' question here must be rhetorical since he already knows the answer.
It is true that MHTI leads the hearers to expect a negative answer, and this
is what Judas hoped for, namely that the others would confirm that they did
not suspect him of being the one. But all the disciples had said the same
MHTI EGW as recorded in v. 22, but the intent behind the question was
different. Maybe it could be translated: "Surely, it is not me, Master?"
>
> >>SU EIPAS, appears to mean something like,
> >>"It is true what you have said."
>
> The simple Greek 'You (yourself) said' does not at all emphasize what you
> have said as you phrased. Actually there is no 'it' in the Greek text.
> Jesus' answer is here to a negatively phrased question; so to me it sounds
> like 'You (yourself) are saying/mentioning about' with nothing specific
> about Judas' "expected" answer. And that way, the answer is enigmatic,
> even to Judas, thus with effect of torturing in his psychology somewhat.
The emphasis is clearly on SU: Now, you yourself have said it. In effect, it
is a "yes", but it is always tricky to answer yes to a negatively framed
question, especially when it is more rhetorical than real. It seems clear to
me that the intent of Jesus' answer is to say: Yes, you have said it
yourself. You are the betrayer.
> Re: Mt 26: 64
> >> Jesus appears to be saying,
> >> "It is true what you have said." (Based on the high priest's response)
>
> The same answer uttered by Jesus. However, here it is an answer to a
> postively phrase question. His answer is to be taken as a postive one.
Here again, SU EIPAS means "yes, what you have expressed is truly the case".
I find it interesting to compare with SU LEGEIS in Matt 27:11 and
parallels - "you are the one saying so". This is the answer to Pilate's
question whether Jesus was the "king of the Jews". The aorist indicates a
completeness or finality to the answer. Yes, it is so, and the question has
been settled. The present tense indicates that the answer is not final: "You
may say it that way, but that is not the whole story. In a sense I am the
king of the Jews, but in a different kind of way than you expect."
Iver Larsen
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