[B-Greek] EGW EIMI in John 8:58
Ted Shoemaker
tedsmath at yahoo.com
Wed Mar 17 19:42:16 EST 2004
"Tony Costa" <tmcos at rogers.com> wrote:
> wondering why John 8:58 (also 8:24 et al) uses EGW EIMI, literally,
> "I, I am" instead of simply EIMI, "I am". Is EGW used for the sake
> of emphasis?
If so, it would be milder than some other possible forms of
emphasis. Consider: hO ANQRWPOS ESTIN AGAQOS. You wouldn't
translate this as "The man, he is good." It would simply be
"The man is good." Similarly, EGW EIMI can more reasonably
be translated into English as "I am."
There were (at least in classical times; I don't know about Koine)
ways of emphasizing the first person. The word EGWGE could be
used in some occasions, not necessarily this one.
=====
Ted Shoemaker
A tantrum on your part does not constitute an emergency on my part.
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